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Re: [Openvpn-users] Routing question


  • Subject: Re: [Openvpn-users] Routing question
  • From: "Hristo Benev" <hristob@xxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Thu, 17 Jan 2008 12:40:10 -0500

Thank you,

I need user to be able to access servers on internal network.

Should I do something special to make it work?

It won't be always the same case. Sometimes user can be in different
subnet - I do not have control on NAT router on user side it could be
home router or hotel router?!


Hristo
-----Original Message-----
From: David Balazic [mailto:David.Balazic@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx] 
Sent: Thursday, January 17, 2008 12:33 PM
To: Hristo Benev; openvpn-users@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: RE: [Openvpn-users] Routing question

It depends, what exactly you want to route, but yes it can work.

David 

> -----Original Message-----
> From: openvpn-users-bounces@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx 
> [mailto:openvpn-users-bounces@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx] On 
> Behalf Of Hristo Benev
> Sent: Thursday, January 17, 2008 6:11 PM
> To: openvpn-users@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> Subject: [Openvpn-users] Routing question
> 
> 
> Hi,
> 
> Maybe this question already appears on the list, but I did 
> not found it
> so if somebody knows the link this is OK as answer.
> 
> I just wonder will openvpn work in following situation:
> 
> Client (192.168.0.x)<->NAT router<->Internet<Fixed IP>OpenVPN
> server<->Internal network(192.168.0.x)
> 
> Note that client and internal network have same private addressing
> space.
> 
> I understand that after connecting client will receive 
> address from VPN
> pool, but if I push routing client may be confused where to route??!!.
> 
> 
> Thank you,
> ______________________
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