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Re: [Openvpn-users] can ping one way but not the other?


  • Subject: Re: [Openvpn-users] can ping one way but not the other?
  • From: "Andrew Hall" <andyjohnhall@xxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Thu, 24 May 2007 21:16:54 +0100

With regards to setting up a client-to-server connection where the
LANs at both sites can see each other, would one of the subnets
referred to here need to be the OpenVPN subnet itself?

"Similarly, if the client machine running OpenVPN is not also the
gateway for the client LAN, then the gateway for the client LAN must
have a route which directs all subnets which should be reachable
through the VPN to the OpenVPN client machine."

That is, on the client side gateway aswell as adding a route which
directs the server side's LAN to the client side OpenVPN server, would
I also need to add a a route which directs the OpenVPN subnet
(10.8.0.0/24) to the client side OpenVPN server too?

I assumed that machines connecting from the server side LAN to the
client side LAN would do so with their own IP addresses, as opposed to
using an OpenVPN address.

Is this not the case? Do they actually get "NAT'd" (so to speak) as an
OpenVPN address?

At the moment I can only get this working by setting the client side
gateway to be the OpenVPN server itself, but don't really wish to do
this.
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