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Re: [Openvpn-users] a problem of the IP allocation

  • Subject: Re: [Openvpn-users] a problem of the IP allocation
  • From: Erich Titl <erich.titl@xxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Thu, 05 Apr 2007 14:14:56 +0200

?? schrieb:
>> From: "Ê·¶°" <semix@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
>> Reply-To: "Ê·¶°" <semix@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
>> To: openvpn-users@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
>> Subject: a problem of the IP allocation
>> Date:Thu, 05 Apr 2007 17:41:05 +0800
>> Hi, guys.
>  I am new here and I got a problem for days.
>  Well,I planed to implement my VPN server on a host under the subnet
>  and the clinet on the Internet with a public address.
>  I allocated as the vitural IP addresses for VPN
> tunnels.
>  As you see, they are part of the subnet. However, althogh the
>  server and client can get their virtual addresses on tun interface(
>  and respectively). I couldn't ping through the peer from either
> side.
>   I tried another IP range as the VPN tunnel address and it
>  worked.
>  AND
>  The OPENVPN-howto says that "the virtual IP address range should be a private
>  range which is currently unused on your network"
>  So what does this "unused" mean? Does it follow that once you DEPLOY the
> as your subnet, you can never use any part of it as the virtual
> IP
>  address even if they are not CONFIGURATED ON ANY SPECIFIC MACHINES?

Yes, because they are already routed. Best use a different network for
your tunnels.



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