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[Openvpn-users] a problem of the IP allocation

  • Subject: [Openvpn-users] a problem of the IP allocation
  • From: "史栋" <semix@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Thu, 05 Apr 2007 18:28:47 +0800

>From: "Ê·¶°" <semix@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
>Reply-To: "Ê·¶°" <semix@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
>To: openvpn-users@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
>Subject: a problem of the IP allocation
>Date:Thu, 05 Apr 2007 17:41:05 +0800
>Hi, guys.
 I am new here and I got a problem for days.
 Well,I planed to implement my VPN server on a host under the subnet
 and the clinet on the Internet with a public address.
 I allocated as the vitural IP addresses for VPN
 As you see, they are part of the subnet. However, althogh the
 server and client can get their virtual addresses on tun interface(
 and respectively). I couldn't ping through the peer from either
  I tried another IP range as the VPN tunnel address and it
 The OPENVPN-howto says that "the virtual IP address range should be a private
 range which is currently unused on your network"
 So what does this "unused" mean? Does it follow that once you DEPLOY the as your subnet, you can never use any part of it as the virtual
 address even if they are not CONFIGURATED ON ANY SPECIFIC MACHINES?
 THANK YOU and excuse me for my English :)

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