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Re: [Openvpn-users] OpenVPN (with identical subnet misshap)


  • Subject: Re: [Openvpn-users] OpenVPN (with identical subnet misshap)
  • From: Sebastian Pein <pein@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Thu, 30 Dec 2004 18:44:30 +0100

> Then to be really show my 'ignorance' of IP knowledge, what if the host 
> portion was identical at the hotspot? Such as:
> 
> XP IP at hotspot -     OpenVPN   - Host IP at Office
> 192.168.128.1/24 - 172.16.0.0/24 - 192.168.128.2/26
> 
> Notice the borrowed bits on the Office Subnet Mask?  Now if I ping 
> 192.168.128.2 from XP will it route correctly?

i guess these two computers will not be able to see each other. at least the xp
at hotspot will speak to the .2 via arp/ethernet. as xp will look at the mask
of 24 bits it will think the .2 lives in the same ip-segment and will be
reachable directly, without usage of any routing tables. but let me think about
the office-host. this one too will try arp/ethernet speech, because the .1 is
also in the same subnet when considerung the 26bit mask. it would use the
routed way if the hotspot xp would have been assigned > .64 (hope i calculated
right in my head?!).

sebastian


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