[Openvpn-users] basic question: how is the client network shared with server net in bridged mode?

["Gary Funck" <gary@xxxxxxxxxxxx>]

Scenario.  The client has something like the following config:
client
dev tap
dev-node VPNTap
proto udp
remote vpn.example.com 1194
ca keys/ca.crt
cert keys/client.crt
key keys/client.key
and the VPNTap is defined to have the following IP/netmask:
64.8.0.1/28, so resides on a subnet with a block of 16 addresses.
Bridging isn't enabled (should it be)?

On the server side:
local 192.99.99.2
port 1194
proto udp
dev tap0
ca keys/ca.crt
cert keys/server.crt
key keys/server.key
dh keys/dh1024.pem
server-bridge 192.99.99.3 255.255.255.0 192.99.99.64 192.99.99.79
push "route 192.99.99.0 255.255.255.0"

I understand how a single client can tunnel into the intranet, but
I'm curious as to others on the intranet (192.99.99/24 above) can
"see" computers in the /28 client net.  Is bridging on the client
side required to make that happen?  Does the /28 on the client
side simply control the maximum number of client computers
that connect from the client side to server, and thus is generally
unrelated to the number of computer (more accurately network
interfaces) on the client side?



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