Re: [Openvpn-users] Traffic in OpenVPN

["Andrew And" <andcop2006@xxxxxxxxx>]

 

 

 I was trying but I didn´t have success. My scene is:

 

Maq1: (OpenVPN client - Windows XP -  IP 10.0.0.6)

               |

               |

Maq2:(OpenVPN server - linux -  inet addr 10.0.0.1  P-t-P: 10.0.0.2 and eth0 200.X.Y.238)

               |

               |

Maq3:(Server - linux -  Apache - eth0 200.X.Y.240     and alias eth0:0  10.0.0.200)

 

 

 Init: I force the route in Maq1 to 200.X.Y.240  pass by VPN (OpenVPN).

 

 

 In my client (Maq1) I access Maq2 IPs 10.0.0.1 and 200.X.Y.238.

 In my client (Maq1) I access Maq3 IP and 200.X.Y.200.

 

 In Ma2 I access all the Maq's.

 

 In Maq3 I access Ma2 IPs 10.0.0.1 and 200.X.Y.238.

 In Maq3 I access Ma1 IPs 10.0.0.6.

 

 My problem Is that in Maq1 I don´t access Ma3 in IP  200.X.Y.240 after I force the route in Maq1 to 200.X.Y.240  pass by VPN (OpenVPN).

 

 What I need to do?

 

 

 

2006/8/3, Charles Duffy <cduffy@xxxxxxxxxxx>:

Andrew And wrote:
> I connect my clients(windows) in OpenVPN with IP 10.0.0.0 , how can I
> do these clients access my server in network 200.x.x.x? but these
> traffic need to pass over OpenVPN.
>
> Now I put the route in client(windows) to 200.x.x.x, but the sniffer
>  show that I don´t have arp response.

ARP should be used only within your local network segment, not when
talking through a gateway (except for when resolving the MAC address of
the gateway itself). Did you specify 10.0.0.0 (which is a VPN address,
right?) as the gateway when you added the client route to 200.x? (If you
used the OpenVPN route directive, that should have been done automatically).


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